I’m a bit confused as to where the g(x)=x-f(x)/f’(x) came from? I assumed the following lines were setting up a contraction for using theorem 4b, but I’m not sure since g resembles the formula for x_{k+1}. Do we have to show g(x)=x iff f(x)=0?
This also relates to another question, which in the slides, it says Newton’s method always converges if f is twice differentiable and x_0 is close to the root. What might be considered close…?